The Gender Equality Checkpoint

[it]

Originally Posted by Clodfobble

If a man anally rapes another man, is that legally considered "rape" or "sexual assault?"

It is now considered rape, though even that was a rather recent update, until a couple of decades ago the definition was exclusive to when the victim was a woman.

While we are on case distinctions: While legally women can't commit rape - since the lack of consent isn't enough to define it as such under current laws, they can commit statutory rape - which is defined as rape because of the inability to give viable consent

Originally Posted by Clodfobble

In fairness, it is also impossible to impregnate a man, so the acts--while both depraved and horrific--are fundamentally different in my opinion.

Are you saying rape should be redefined as "attempt to impregnate"? Would it then not count as rape if the rapists used protection, if the woman was too old to conceive or not count as statutory rape if she was too young?

That also brings up an interesting side note, since there are quite a few cases where men are paying child support for children born out of sex they didn't consent to have in the first place.

Originally Posted by Clodfobble

I'm okay with the idea of the word "rape" only applying to women, as long as a woman forcing herself on a man is called the same thing as a man forcing himself on a man.

Interesting. Why? Why would a transgression (Non consensual sex) need a special sub category with it's own unique loaded word for female victims?

Non sexual forms of physical violence can also have different consequences to members of either gender simply by virtue of impacting a different set of organs - if we redefine rape for women because they might get pregnant should we redefine physical assault on women because they might already be pregnant and abort the baby in the process? And why not anything else? Is murder for men fundamentally different because it can result in stopping the blood flow to a penis?