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Old 03-31-2009, 10:42 AM   #1
lookout123
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The penalties are very different. You can make a strong case that it is racial discrimination in action, if you're the type of person who's looking for a racist behind every woodpile. Of course, an equally strong case can be made that while crack is a derivative of cocaine it is apparently far more addictive, hooks you more quickly and deeply, has insanely wide variations in chemistry, and is more often associated with crimes of theft and assault than ordinary cocaine. I have a little personal experience with the subject. For the record I know more middle class white people who've been addicted to crack than have been addicted to cocaine.
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Old 03-31-2009, 12:18 PM   #2
piercehawkeye45
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Originally Posted by lookout123 View Post
For the record I know more middle class white people who've been addicted to crack than have been addicted to cocaine.
More whites use crack then blacks but a higher percentage of blacks use crack than whites. Whites dominate in cocaine use.

http://www.oas.samhsa.gov/Nhsda/2k3t...6.htm#tab1.38b
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Old 03-31-2009, 12:26 PM   #3
TheMercenary
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Originally Posted by piercehawkeye45 View Post
More whites use crack then blacks but a higher percentage of blacks use crack than whites. Whites dominate in cocaine use.

http://www.oas.samhsa.gov/Nhsda/2k3t...6.htm#tab1.38b
In 2002 and 2003 based on their statistics.
They sound pretty legit.
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Old 03-31-2009, 10:11 PM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by piercehawkeye45 View Post
More whites use crack then blacks but a higher percentage of blacks use crack than whites. Whites dominate in cocaine use.
huh? How can more whites use crack, but a higher % of blacks use it? That doesn't make sense to me. Are you just saying that as a whole, the black population uses it more? How can more whites use it than blacks then? I'm confused. (this kind of math was always hard for me)
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Old 03-31-2009, 10:16 PM   #5
piercehawkeye45
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huh? How can more whites use crack, but a higher % of blacks use it? That doesn't make sense to me. Are you just saying that as a whole, the black population uses it more? How can more whites use it than blacks then? I'm confused. (this kind of math was always hard for me)
There are more white people then black people.

Lets say we have 100 white people and 10 black people.

If 20 white people use crack and 5 black people use crack, we can say that more white people use crack then black people.

But, we can also so that the percentage of blacks using crack (50%) is higher then the percentage of whites using crack (20%).
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