Partisan politics

[TheMercenary]

Sure, remove them from office. Start over. Prevent lobbyist's on Federal property. Remove all external forms of campaign finance other than government funding. Term limits. Allow more than 2 parties to dominate the political arena.

[flaja]

Originally Posted by TheMercenary

Sure, remove them from office. Start over. Prevent lobbyist's on Federal property. Remove all external forms of campaign finance other than government funding. Term limits. Allow more than 2 parties to dominate the political arena.

Would you give taxpayer money to any of these organizations:

American Nazi Party: http://www.americannaziparty.com/

Christian Falangist Party of America: http://www.falange1.com/

Communist Party USA: http://www.cpusa.org/

Democratic Socialists of America: http://www.dsausa.org/

Family Values Party: http://members.aol.com/fvparty/fvparty1/ ?


If you are going to use taxpayer money to facilitate political campaigns, could you legally or morally exclude any party or candidate from getting taxpayer money? And if you give taxpayer money equally to all parties and all candidates, can you legally or morally compel any tax payer to give financial support to a party or candidate that is anathema to the taxpayer?

And just how does money contribute to the partisan nature of American politics? How does money enable a Democrat to call conservatives/Republicans Nazis or allow a Republican to call liberals/Democrats un-American?

[TheMercenary]

Originally Posted by flaja

Would you give taxpayer money to any of these organizations:

American Nazi Party: http://www.americannaziparty.com/

Christian Falangist Party of America: http://www.falange1.com/

Communist Party USA: http://www.cpusa.org/

Democratic Socialists of America: http://www.dsausa.org/

Family Values Party: http://members.aol.com/fvparty/fvparty1/ ?


If you are going to use taxpayer money to facilitate political campaigns, could you legally or morally exclude any party or candidate from getting taxpayer money? And if you give taxpayer money equally to all parties and all candidates, can you legally or morally compel any tax payer to give financial support to a party or candidate that is anathema to the taxpayer?

And just how does money contribute to the partisan nature of American politics? How does money enable a Democrat to call conservatives/Republicans Nazis or allow a Republican to call liberals/Democrats un-American?

No, I would discriminate against them and they would not get squat.

We already give taxpayer money to political parties and canidates. It is not a question of morality. If you do not understand how money contributes to the partisan nature of American politics I would suggest some basic civics and political science lessons at your local college.

[flaja]

Originally Posted by TheMercenary

We already give taxpayer money to political parties and canidates.

How so? If you are referring to the federal money that presidential candidates get, it is money that comes from voluntary contributions that federal income tax payers make to a special fund. Money that is paid into this fund is not tax money. As far as I know giving money to this fund does not alter what you otherwise have to pay in taxes.

If you do not understand how money contributes to the partisan nature of American politics I would suggest some basic civics and political science lessons at your local college.

You condescending attitude is uncalled for considering that 1. I have been studying history and politics for over 30 years; 2. I have 40 credit hours in college history courses (to go with my bachelor’s degree in biology) and 3. I have actually been a candidate for public office.

Furthermore, you are the one making the claim that money causes partisan politics, so it is incumbent upon you to explain how. Expecting me to do the research to back up your claim tells me that your claim is bogus.