Men Abortion and Choice

[xoxoxoBruce]

Originally Posted by TheMercenary

Sorry dude, I don't buy it. If the men carried the babies for 9 months and took the same physiological risks it would be different. The woman carries the baby, she get to say if she wants to do that for 9 months or if she wants to terminate it. Her choice, not yours. Men are but the sperm donors.

I agree with you until the cord is cut. Then it becomes theirs, not hers.

[TheMercenary]

Originally Posted by xoxoxoBruce

I agree with you until the cord is cut. Then it becomes theirs, not hers.

I would support that notion.

Sluts!! Sluts all sluts. Buncha whores. Don't you know sex for women is only for procreation?

Never stated nor implied that.

Originally Posted by xoxoxoBruce

I agree with you until the cord is cut. Then it becomes theirs, not hers.

How fortunate for her, funny how that happens.

[yesman065]

Originally Posted by yesman065

All of what everyone is saying seems to hinge on WHEN the "fetus" is determined to be a "child." At what point does the child earn those rights? Upon conception, 3 months, 6 months....not until birth?
If it is considered a child upon conception - what right does the mother have to KILL it? However, if it is not considered "human" until birth, then one could argue that everything between conception and birth is entirely up to the woman. The difficulty comes into play during the undefined period between conception and birth where we recognize the fetus as a child. I'm thinking as I'm typing, and thats always dangerous for me, but what if at, say 6 & 1/2 months the "mother" decided to (and I love this nonpersonal terminology) terminate the pregnancy? Is/would that be ok and should the father have no say under those circumstances?

Originally Posted by xoxoxoBruce

I agree with you until the cord is cut. Then it becomes theirs, not hers.

Possession of another human? I think not - unless you were referring to responsibility and not ownership. Either way, when does a fetus becomes a human with its own rights.

If it isn't a human until birth then why is someone who kills a pregnant woman charged with two counts of homicide?

[bluecuracao]

Originally Posted by yesman065

Possession of another human? I think not - unless you were referring to responsibility and not ownership. Either way, when does a fetus becomes a human with its own rights.

If it isn't a human until birth then why is someone who kills a pregnant woman charged with two counts of homicide?

A fetus must be given birth to, to have his/her own rights. But as long as he/she must depend on a woman's body to live, said woman has overriding rights.

And those overriding rights include deciding to carry her fetus to term, and give birth to a baby with rights to live. If someone else steps in and kills her, especially with the intent to stop the birth of the baby that she wanted, then he/she may get charged accordingly.

[xoxoxoBruce]

Originally Posted by yesman065

Possession of another human? I think not - unless you were referring to responsibility and not ownership. Either way, when does a fetus becomes a human with its own rights.

No, ownership... just like a mini-slave. That's why the courts have ruled to limit the 4th amendment for kids.