The Cellar - View Single Post - Pissed Iraqi foreign minister kicks UN squarely in the nads

quzah · 12-18-2003, 05:22 PM

I don't need an entire thread to prove a point, unless you're unable to understand the basic mathmatics about to be described to you:

Say that 100 weapons were sold per year for 27 years. 57% of those were sold by the USSR. This means that the USSR sold 1539 weapons. Still with me? The USA however, only sold 1% of them. That is to say, 27 weapons.

Divide 1539 by 27, and you get 57, naturally. Multiply this by 17, and you get the number of weapons that the USSR sold over 17 years: 969.

The US sold 27 weapons over a span of 17 years, and the USSR sold 969. Total sold weapons is 1700. Divide 969 by 1700, what do you get? 57%. Divide 27 by 1700 and what do you get? 1.58%.

Now how again am I wrong here? Please, point it out to me. The percentage cannot drop over a lesser time frame if the volume sold by the USA is fixed. It can only increase.

I have already illustrated this and the manipulation of graphs in the above post. Please refer to it. If you sell five cars, and I sell five, we've both sold 50% of total share. If next year, you sell zero, and I sell 5 more, you now are down to 33% even though your volume has not changed.

Welcome to graph manipulation 101. This is why it's better for the US to present the graph through the 2000 time table versus the 1990 time table. If they stop selling weapons in 1900, then their percentage of the total number sold will drop, while the actual sold number remains the same.

But what do I know right? I mean, I've only proven the point multiple times now.

Quzah.

12-18-2003, 05:22 PM	#29
quzah Knight of the Oval-Shaped Conference Table Join Date: Jan 2002 Posts: 375	I don't need an entire thread to prove a point, unless you're unable to understand the basic mathmatics about to be described to you: Say that 100 weapons were sold per year for 27 years. 57% of those were sold by the USSR. This means that the USSR sold 1539 weapons. Still with me? The USA however, only sold 1% of them. That is to say, 27 weapons. Divide 1539 by 27, and you get 57, naturally. Multiply this by 17, and you get the number of weapons that the USSR sold over 17 years: 969. The US sold 27 weapons over a span of 17 years, and the USSR sold 969. Total sold weapons is 1700. Divide 969 by 1700, what do you get? 57%. Divide 27 by 1700 and what do you get? 1.58%. Now how again am I wrong here? Please, point it out to me. The percentage cannot drop over a lesser time frame if the volume sold by the USA is fixed. It can only increase. I have already illustrated this and the manipulation of graphs in the above post. Please refer to it. If you sell five cars, and I sell five, we've both sold 50% of total share. If next year, you sell zero, and I sell 5 more, you now are down to 33% even though your volume has not changed. Welcome to graph manipulation 101. This is why it's better for the US to present the graph through the 2000 time table versus the 1990 time table. If they stop selling weapons in 1900, then their percentage of the total number sold will drop, while the actual sold number remains the same. But what do I know right? I mean, I've only proven the point multiple times now. Quzah.