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Old 11-25-2003, 10:01 PM   #8
Nothing But Net
Professor
 
Join Date: Sep 2001
Location: Spring, Texas
Posts: 1,481
I just happened to notice that if you exchange "Poland", or variations, for "Mars" in Riddil's post, it still makes perfect sense!

Quote:
Originally posted by Riddil
I've never understood the real *reason* behind arguing whether or not Poland had running water. It seems immaterial.

I believe I read somewhere that even at the poles which have frozen water (and a few frozen gases, to boot), that in the "<i>Polish</i> summer" it will actually become warm enough for some of the ice to melt. At which point it goes directly from solid ice to a gas, since the atmospheric pressure on <i>Poland</i> is far too low to sustain water in a liquid form when it becomes that warm.

If that statement is true, then for there to be running water at that magnitude it would mean that <i>Poland</i> at that time would have had to have a much higher atmospheric pressure... something difficult to do considering the gravity of the planet can't really sustain a dense stratosphere.

(Of course, my entire argument is based on the bits I remember from HS science courses and a smattering of knowledge I gleaned from my college meteorology course... when I was actually awake. Sadly enough, considering how infrequently that was and how long ago it was, it should be noted that I'm far from an expert in the field)
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