Quote:
Originally Posted by TheMercenary
I believe it does.
"We the people of the United States,
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Did we the people include women people who could not vote in America until 1920? Or did this country routinely fine, jail and execute women without giving them their due process rights? Women had no role in preparing the Constitution and thus could not be construed as being any part of “We the People”, but women still had the same legal due process rights that citizens of the United States enjoyed.
So what makes you so certain that the Persons to which the 5th Amendment is applicable is limited to U.S. citizens?