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Originally Posted by Sundae Girl
Just that I have never read or heard of anyone questioning the term "closing the gap" to mean anything but raising standards for the poor.
Then within a short space of time here the query was raised - does this mean lowering standards anywhere along the line?
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I guess I'm still not explaining it well enough. No one would ever literally suggest lowering standards as a meaningful definition of narrowing the gap. I was trying to illustrate the logical fallacy of including a comparison with the upper classes at all. To me, even semantically considering the level of the upper classes when trying to raise standards for the poor is the wrong attitude. I think you're right, it
is semantically cultural, but I think the mental perception of the issue does affect the policies put in place, and thus the outcomes of those policies.