The question was posed about western law as well as well as saudi (after a fashion). They give lashes, we give years in jail. In either circumstance, and accepting for the sake of argument that there is nothing questionable about their laws (or ours), is it ok to absolve someone of their crimes for being victimized? I'm not sure it is, after a point. If this woman's crime was severe enough (say murder) would that still be ignored if she were brutally raped?
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Hoocha, hoocha, hoocha... lobster.
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