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Old 11-02-2007, 06:29 PM   #2
Radar
Constitutional Scholar
 
Join Date: Dec 2002
Location: Ocala, FL
Posts: 4,006
Quote:
Originally Posted by Ibram View Post
Radar, I speak Chinese. And I know for certain that how ever many thousand years ago, there WAS no chinese identity of any sort, before Qin Shi Huang Di unified china. As I already said, if you could have been bothered to read, before Qin Shi Huang Di commanded a unified writing style for all of his domain, not only did each former nation-state have its own independent language, but its own completely different identity and culture. We aren't talking, like, an athens-sparta kind of difference, where they were separate but still both greek... we're talking, like, the difference between brazil and italy. Possibly some common linguistic roots way back there somewhere, but... utterly separate cultures. Then, imagine some dictator took over both italy and brazil, and decreed that they had to write the same way, even if they didnt say everything the same way. Hundreds of years later, portugese and italian would become part of the same language family, rather than separate languages, right?

Look, you are not going to win this one, radar. All the historical evidence is against you. Before there was a china, there absolutely were NO chinese. Only long after Qin Shi Huang Di unified what is now china were there any chinese people.

Simply picking out one word from my entire post and saying, nolookthatischinese, is both intellectually dishonest and just plain stupid.
Historical evidence proves that the language spoken by the Han Chinese (before the unification of all the kingdoms of China) was mandarin Chinese. Anything you say to the contrary is false. So knock yourself out if you want.
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