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No. As long as all women honor the fathers as paramount. As long as all women consider the fathers' wishes to outweigh their own. As long as all women consider their own wishes to be subordinate to those of the men they have sex with.
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I neither stated nor implied any of those.
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Yes you did. By suggesting that the man should have right of veto over a woman's decision to abort a baby, and by extending that to suggest that any woman having sex and getting accidentally pregnant should be subject to that veto, you have implied exactly that.