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Originally Posted by Radar
No, your rights are not defined by the law of a nation you happen to live in. The ways in which a nation will protect your rights or violate them are in the laws. Some nations violate rights more than others.
When the elected officials (servants) of a country try to infringe upon the rights of their masters, they are violating the bounds of their legitimate authority and violating the trust put in them.
It is not only the right, but also the duty of the people to revolt when this happens.
Yes, it did apply to all men when it was written. It didn't apply to blacks (who were considered livestock) and didn't apply to women. The civil war was not over slavery.
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That statement contradicts itself because blacks are men. And women are their equals.
I know the civil war was not about slavery, it was about state's right but it took a conflict like that to get rid of slavery and see black folks as people too. But it took another 100 years before they were seen as equals. So that initial statement of the declaration of independence didn't really apply to all men.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Radar
Yes, the Constitution can change with time, but it was created to place limits on government, not our rights. This is why the 16th and 18th amendments were violations...that and the 16th was fraudulently ratified.
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Then why are they in effect?
Quote:
Originally Posted by Radar
Less than 1/1000th of our military would ever fire on Americans even during a revolt and if they were ordered to do so, and those that didn't would defend us from those who did.
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That is good to know.