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Actually, I don't think there is much of a difference, legally speaking. The judge in question is the ultimate arbiter of whether or not there's a conflict of interest (which I think is a bunch of horsecrap, but that's another thread). I'm pretty sure there's no legal requirement for a judge to even disclose if there's even of potential COI. The flip side of that is there's more than likely an ethical necessity, but since when do ethics and law coincide?
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Don't Panic
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